NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Review Study Guide 2nd Edition 11/6/2018

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NCLEX-RN Review Study Guide

Copyright © 2018 by Achieve

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NCLEX-RN Review Study Guide

Table of Contents Chapter One: Issues in Nursing ............................................................................................................4 1.1 Legal Issues.............................................................................................................................................4 1.2 Ethics......................................................................................................................................................5 1.3 Grounds for Disciplinary Action ...............................................................................................................6 1.4 Leadership and Delegation in Nursing......................................................................................................6 1.5 Cultural Diversity ....................................................................................................................................7 Chapter Two: Fundamental Skills.........................................................................................................8 2.1 Safety .....................................................................................................................................................8 2.2 Medication .............................................................................................................................................8 2.3 CPR.........................................................................................................................................................9 2.4 Surgical Patients ...................................................................................................................................10 Chapter Three: Maternity Nursing ..................................................................................................... 11 Chapter Four: Pediatric Nursing......................................................................................................... 13 Chapter Five: The Adult Client ........................................................................................................... 14 5.1 Integumentary Disorder ........................................................................................................................14 5.2 Hematological and Oncological Disorders ..............................................................................................15 5.3 Endocrine Disorder ...............................................................................................................................16 5.4 Gastrointestinal System ........................................................................................................................16 5.5 Respiratory Disorder .............................................................................................................................17 5.6 Cardiovascular Disorder ........................................................................................................................18 5.7 Renal Disorder ......................................................................................................................................19 5.8 Eye or Ear Disorder ...............................................................................................................................20 5.9 Neurological Disorders ..........................................................................................................................21 5.10 Musculoskeletal System......................................................................................................................21 5.11 Immune System ..................................................................................................................................22 5.12 Mental Health Disorder.......................................................................................................................23 Cumulative Practice Exam ................................................................................................................. 24 Answer Keys ..................................................................................................................................... 50

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Chapter One: Issues in Nursing As a registered nurse, you are expected to be a leader since you will delegate duties and responsibilities and advocate for your patients, even if that sometimes means speaking up to physicians and other health care providers. Additionally, you are expected to act ethically. The ICN (International Council for Nurses) and the ANA (American Nurses Association) provide codes of ethics by which a nurse should practice. You must also remember that there are some legal issues specific to your practice. 1.1 Legal Issues Consent is the permission a person gives for something. In the case of nursing, consent involves treatment that is to be done to a patient. 1. ____________________________ consent is what is preferred. This type of consent is given when a patient is told about the risks and benefits of the procedure for which he/she is giving consent. This type of consent also assumes that the patient is of sound mind and not under the influence of any sedatives or narcotics. 2. ____________________________ consent is what is given when a patient who is unconscious is brought into a hospital. 3. Consent may only be given by adults. There are a few exceptions in which a juvenile may consent to his/her own treatment: a. Actively in the military b. ____________________________ c. ____________________________ d. ____________________________ e. ____________________________ 4. True or false: Any juvenile may consent to treatment for birth control or STDs even if they do not meet the above criteria. _____________________________ 5. A document that provides a person’s directions regarding their end of life care should he/she become unable to express his/her own wishes is known as: ____________________________ Nurses are bound by HIPPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) when talking about a patient’s condition or sharing his/her record. If a nurse violates HIPPA, not only is he or she at risk for losing the job and license, but also, the nurse can be charged with defamation of character and/or invasion of privacy. A nurse must always protect the patients’ privacy at all cost. 6. ____________________________ is a failure to act, or failure to meet the expected level of action. It is punishable according to civil law. 7. ____________________________ is professional negligence.

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8. There are four components to meeting this: 1. ____________________________ 2. Breech of duty 3. ____________________________ 4. ____________________________ 9.

____________________________ law is concerned with issues between individuals or individuals and businesses. Punishment usually involves loss of property or finances. 10. ____________________________ law is concerned with issues between people and the public and can involve harm to people. This type of law is usually punishable by loss of freedom, sometimes also loss of finances, and in some cases, loss of life. 1.2 Ethics Ethics are principles that guide or direct nursing actions. Basically, ethics help nurses to distinguish between right and wrong, and help nurses to practice in a way that they or their family members would want to be treated. Some principles related to ethics are: • Autonomy • Beneficence • Veracity • Fidelity • Justice • Non-maleficence 1. The ethical principle that is a nurse’s obligation to tell the truth is ____________________________. 2. The ethical principle that is defined by a nurse’s obligation to do what one says he or she is going to do, and to keep promises, is called ____________________________. As registered nurses, one of the big tasks is to be a patient advocate. This means that nurses speak up and/or act on behalf of the patient, and uphold ethical principles. 3. Who writes the nurse practice acts? What other duties are the responsibility of this organization? ____________________________ 4. Defining the scope of ____________________________ 5. Setting forth requirements for ____________________________

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1.3 Grounds for Disciplinary Action The nurse practice acts are not the only thing that define how nurses practice. As mentioned earlier, nurses have codes of ethics, facility policies and guidelines, and the ANA standards of practice. 1. Nurses also have the ____________________________ of ____________________________, which is the way a prudent nurse in the same situation would act. Nurses are held to this not only in everyday practice, but they can also be held to this in a court of law and before the board of nursing. 1.4 Leadership and Delegation in Nursing Remember, as a registered nurse, you take on several roles: • Provider of care • Manager of care • ____________________________ (Question 1) • ____________________________ (Question 2) • Member of the healthcare team Some issues to think about when delegating tasks to other members of the healthcare team include: • The need for licensure of the person to whom the task is delegated • Orientation of the person to whom the task is delegated to • The unit/task assigned • The capability of the person to whom the task is delegated • The fairness of the assignment • The fear of the delegating RN of seeming controlling. The five rights of task delegation: • Right task • Right circumstances • Right ____________________________ (Question 3) • Right direction/communication • Right supervision

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NCLEX-RN Review Study Guide 4. Management styles (Match the words below to the definition): • Autocratic ____________________________ • Democratic ____________________________ • Laisse Fairez ____________________________ • Bureaucratic ____________________________ • Situational ____________________________ a. Permissive, passive style; the group makes decisions b. Policies, procedures, and other external forces make decisions for a group c. Participative style; group members have input on decision making d. Leader maintains focused control; most efficient style e. Combination of styles based on current events at hand

1.5 Cultural D iversity 1. The process of learning norms, beliefs, and behavioral expectations of a group other than one’s own is called ____________________________. 2. Who was the nursing theorist who believed in culturally competent care? ____________________________ 3. Nurses should not assume that all people in a particular ethnic, religious, or racial group have the same beliefs or practices. This would be called ____________________________. 4. Which blood disorder, primarily a disease of African Americans, is characterized by periods of painful crisis? ____________________________ 5. Which fatal congenital disorder is generally a disease of Jewish males and causes brain and nerve disorders resulting in death by age four? ____________________________ When possible, nurses should try to honor and respect patients’ and families’ requests for rituals and practices.

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Chapter Two: Fundamental Skills 2.1 Safety 1. When prioritizing patients and tasks to be done, nurses should always consider the “ABCs” first. At the same time, they should consider safety issues. As an RN, the nurse should always first do the thing that he/she can do independently to take the patient out of immediate danger before calling the ____________________________, or doing other interventions. 2. Restraints are meant to keep a patient safe and to help him/her from removing important medical equipment from the body. However, nurses should consider the ____________________________restrictive method of restraint first. 3. Nurses can be injured in a number of ways if they don’t use safe practices. When lifting and moving, health care providers should always lift with their ____________________________, not their ____________________________. 4. Needles should never be bent, ____________________________, or ____________________________. 5. Healthcare providers should wear gloves with all patients and wash their hands ____________________________and ____________________________ contact with any patient. 6. If anyone in or out of the healthcare facility ingests a poison, the first action should be to ____________________________. Nurses without protective equipment and proper training should not administer chemotherapy. 2.2 Medication 1. The five rights of medication administration are: • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ Documentation of medication administration is also now considered a right of medication administration. “If you didn’t document it, you didn’t do it.” If the doctor has written a medication order, and any part of the order is missing, a nurse must call the doctor for clarification of the order. 2. If a nurse administers a wrong dose or route of a medication because the physician’s order wasn’t clear, who is responsible for this error, the doctor, the nurse, or both? ____________________________

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Be careful with abbreviations. It is better to be clear with medication names and dosages. Many abbreviations have been eliminated from facilities in an effort to prevent errors. For example, MSO4 is being eliminated as an abbreviation for morphine, and OD is being eliminated for an abbreviation for “once daily.” 3. You read a medication order that says, “Prozac, 10mg, once daily.” There is no route written, but you know that Prozac only comes in PO format. What should you do? ____________________________ 4. The doctor orders Ceftraxione 1 gram over two hours. Ceftraxione, in your facility, comes in a 250ml bag containing 1500 milligrams. What would the infusion rate be? ____________________________ 5. Your order reads Solumedrol 100mg IV push stat. Solumedrol comes as 125mg in 1ml. How much volume of Solumedrol would you administer? ____________________________ 6. Augmentin 600 mg is ordered. You have 875 mg capsules on hand. What would you do? ____________________________ 7. Tylenol 650mg is ordered. You have 325mg capsules. How many capsules would you give the patient? ____________________________ 8. Which of the following would be the best needle for a deep IM injection? a. 22g ½” b. 25g ½” c. 20g 1” d. 16g 1” 9. You are administering regular insulin. The order is for 8 units. How would you administer 8 units of regular insulin? a. 8 ml b. 0.8 ml c. 0.08 ml d. 80 ml 10. All IV pumps in the hospital are in use, so you need to hang a medication by gravity/drop factor. The medication is ordered at 125ml/hour. The drip factor of the tubing is 30 drops per Ml. How many drops per minute would make this medication run at 125 ml/hour? ____________________________ 11. True or false, aspirin is an NSAID? ____________________________ 2.3 CPR 1. The American Heart Association teaches healthcare provider CPR in the following order: ____________________________, ____________________________, then ____________________________. 2. Early ____________________________ has been proven to be very important in the potential for survivability in cardiac arrest.

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2.4 Surgical Patients 1. A patient may not sign for consent if he/she has already been given ____________________________. 2. Your patient signs consent after being given necessary information by the physician about the procedure. You may sign as a witness. True or false? You are signing that the physician has told the patient everything he/she needs to know about the procedure. ____________________________ 3. The biggest and first priority for post-op patients will always be: a. Bleeding b. Airway c. Level of consciousness d. Infection 4. ____________________________ is known as the separation of surgical wound edges. 5. Evisceration is known as ____________________________. 6. ____________________________ is the device used to help a patient prevent pneumonia post operatively with deep breathing exercises. 7. An abdominal pillow will help with post-operative ____________________________ and ____________________________ in a patient who has had abdominal surgery. 8. “Time outs” are now used preoperatively to help prevent surgical and medical errors. Some things that are verified during time outs are: • Patient ____________________________ • Patient date of birth • Surgical site • Patient allergies 9. Post-operative patients are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis. A major concern with DVT is the development of ____________________________. 10. Some signs of hypoxia in a post-op patient are: • Restlessness • Cyanosis • Hypertension • ____________________________ • ____________________________ 11. A patient who has had anesthesia in a same day procedure is discharged. What is he/she instructed not to do for the 24 hours following the procedure? • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • Make important decisions • Operate heavy machinery 12. Which of the following medications are likely to be discontinued a few days preoperatively for a patient having significant abdominal surgery? ____________________________ • Tylenol • Aspirin • Nexiumlasix • Prozac • Fish oils • Glucophage

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Chapter Three: Maternity Nursing 1. Unilateral pelvic pain caused by ovulation is called ____________________________. 2. ____________________________ is when a pregnant mother feels a fetus move inside of her. This occurs at about 16-20 weeks. 3. The most favorable pelvis type for labor and birth is ____________________________. 4. ____________________________ is when the placenta comes very close to, or partially or fully blocks the cervical OS. 5. The major ovarian hormones are ____________________________ and ____________________________. 6. The average menstrual cycle is ____________________________ days. 7. An ectopic pregnancy is one that does not implant in the ____________________________. 8. True or false, an ectopic pregnancy may be viable if it is caught early enough. ____________________________ 9. Rhogam is given if a pregnant mother is RH ____________________________. 10. A patient is pregnant for the sixth time. She has two sets of twins, and two additional boys living. What is her gravida and para? ____________________________ 11. The pneumonic GTPAL stands for: • G Gravidity • T ____________________________ • P Preterm births • A ____________________________ • L Current living children 12. Missing a period, nausea, and vomiting are ____________________________ signs of pregnancy. 13. Having a fetal heart rate detected is a ____________________________ sign of pregnancy. 14. When a woman is pregnant, she will have a purplish discoloration of the mucous membranes of the female reproductive tract. This is known as: a. Ballottement b. Chadwick’s sign c. Goodell’s sign d. Hegar’s sign 15. If a substance is dangerous to a developing fetus, it is called ____________________________. 16. Adolescent mothers and ____________________________mothers are at higher risk for preterm labor and genetic abnormalities. 17. Your patient’s last menstrual period was April 16. When is she due to have her baby? ____________________________

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NCLEX-RN Review Study Guide 18. Which vaccine would be teratogenic to a developing fetus? a. Rubeola b. Rubella c. Measles d. Mumps 19. What is the name of the test to detect the presence of amniotic fluid? ____________________________ 20. If a pregnant woman has spotting and the cervix begins to dilate, this is known as an ____________________________ abortion. 21. What is the name of the maternal condition in which the clotting cascade is activated, resulting in the formation of clots in the microcirculation, but later causes uncontrollable hemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors? ____________________________ 22. What distinguishes preecclampsia from ecclampsia? ____________________________ 23. What is the purpose of a cerclage? ____________________________ 24. Which is the optimal lie for a fetus in a laboring mother, longitudinal or transverse lie? ____________________________ 25. In an occipital presentation, what part of the infant’s body is at the cervical OS? ____________________________ 26. The first thing that a nurse should do in a laboring mother whose fetus shows signs of distress is ____________________________. 27. If the baby’s heart rate drops right after mom’s contraction starts, and rises after mom’s contraction ends, this is known as ____________________________, and is a positive/negative finding (circle one). 28. Once the membranes in a pregnant mother have ruptured, there is an increased risk for ____________________________. 29. Labor lasting less than three hours is called a ____________________________. 30. If the uterus isn’t contracting and the fundus is not lowering, the nurse should have the patient ____________________________. 31. Mastitis is an infection usually caused by ____________________________. 32. If a postpartum mother develops a pulmonary embolus, where did the thrombus likely originate from? ____________________________ 33. Bleeding of ____________________________ ml or more is considered hemorrhage. 34. A temperature of 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit or less in a post-partum mother can be normal as a result of ____________________________.

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Chapter Four: Pediatric Nursing 1. Newborns receive Aquamephyton injections because they do not have ____________________________. 2. What congenital disorder are all newborns in the United States tested for at birth? This disorder usually presents with no symptoms at birth, and once symptoms present, brain damage may have already been done. The patient with this disorder has to have substitute proteins and formula. ____________________________ 3. The anterior fontanel in an infant is usually closed by ____________________________ to ____________________________ months of age. 4. A dehydrated infant might present with ____________________________fontanels. 5. There are multiple newborn/infant reflexes that are tested at birth. The plantar reflex is also known as the ____________________________ reflex. 6. Respiratory distress syndrome is particularly common in a premature infant. The NICU nurse would prepare to administer ____________________________ replacement. 7. A term pregnancy is one that is ____________________________ to ____________________________ weeks gestation. 8. If an infant is born with jaundice, it is likely that this is ____________________________, meaning that there is an underlying cause of the problem. 9. Magnesium sulfate is a ____________________________. That is, it can be used to halt preterm labor. 10. What developmental theorist discussed the ways that the mind organizes and adapts to its environment? His stages included sensorimotor and concrete operational stages. ____________________________ 11. Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development talked about tasks that should be accomplished in developmental stages. In what stage do we learn trust vs. mistrust? ____________________________ 12. Sigmund Freud talked about psychosexual development and levels of the mind. He also discussed the agencies of the mind; the ____________________________,the ego, and the super ego. 13. Which agency has to deal with self-pleasure, self-involvement, and indulgence? ____________________________ 14. The school age child does well with medical play techniques. What types of things might be used to help explain procedures? ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________ 15. The best place to assess a pulse in an infant is the ____________________________. 16. Chest compressions in a child should be done ____________________________ the nipples. 17. True or false, for the adolescent population, separation from friends/peers is a source of anxiety____________________________.

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Chapter Five: The Adult Client 5.1 Integumentary Disorder 1. Which type of burn is usually painless? ____________________________ thickness or ____________________________ degree burn 2. What are the functions of skin? ____________________________ and ____________________________ 3. Pediculosis capitis is also known as ____________________________. 4. The best way to prevent the spread of scabies is to ____________________________ the entire household prophylactically. The parkland burn formula determines how much fluid is given for resuscitation in burn victims. The formula is 4ml/kg x percentage of body surface burned x patient’s weight in kilograms. 5. A patient who weighs 95 kilograms was burned on 45% of his body surface area. How much fluid would he get in 24 hours? ____________________________ 6. How much of this fluid would he get in the first eight hours post-burn injury? ____________________________ 7. If a patient has a stage one pressure ulcer, what is the best way to describe it? Redness that does not ____________________________. 8. If a pressure ulcer has damage, including bone and fascia, and has areas of necrosis, what stage is it? ____________________________ 9. Koplik’s spots are characteristic of which infectious disease? ____________________________ 10. What can we teach patients who have itchy skin to help prevent them from exacerbating the rash by scratching? Put ____________________________ on the itchy part of the skin. 11. Herpes zoster is responsible for which skin disorder? ____________________________ 12. A drug induced skin reaction caused by an immunological response that can cause large blister formation is known as ____________________________ Johnson Syndrome. 13. Singed eyebrows or facial hair and hoarseness can indicate that there may be a burn to what important area of the body? ____________________________ 14. What is themost important indicator of appropriate tissue perfusion? ____________________________ 15. True or false, topical steroids given for skin irritations can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. ____________________________

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5.2 Hematological and Oncological Disorders 1. Which screenings should be taught to adolescent girls regarding cancer? ____________________________ 2. Which screenings should be taught to adolescent boys regarding cancer? ____________________________ 3. How often should a female over 40 have a mammogram? ____________________________ 4. If colon polyps are not removed, they may become cancerous. How are they found and removed? ____________________________ 5. If a patient has cancer of the lung that has spread to lymph nodes and the liver, what stage would this cancer be? ____________________________ 6. ____________________________is the best medicine for cancer. 7. Which STD has been known to cause cervical cancer? ____________________________ 8. The only true way to diagnose cancer is through ____________________________. 9. Cancers are usually treated by one or more of the following: chemotherapy, ____________________________, and ____________________________. 10. If a patient is on neutropenic precautions due to being on chemotherapy, what is the concern? ____________________________ 11. True or false, a painful lump in the testicles is likely to be cancer. ____________________________ 12. Removal of all or most of the organs in the pelvis due to extensive cancer is known as pelvic ____________________________. 13. True or false, conization allows a female to maintain reproductive ability. ____________________________ 14. What is the common surgery for pancreatic cancer known as? ____________________________ procedure 15. What stage is carcinoma in situ? ____________________________ 16. Radiation causes ____________________________ hair loss. 17. Patients who have implanted radiation seeds need to be in ____________________________for a short period of time so they do not emit radiation to those around them. 18. Hematological cancers involving leukocytes, are called ____________________________. 19. Dragging or pulling sensations in the groin can be a sign of ____________________________ cancer. 20. Multiple myeloma is a cancer within the ____________________________. 21. The most common site of malignant breast tumors is the upper outer quadrant of the breast or the ____________________________.

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5.3 Endocrine Disorder 1. Diabetes insipidus is due to hyposecretion of the ____________________________ hormone. 2. The master gland of the endocrine system is the ____________________________ gland. 3. The hemoglobin A1C test is a test of the control of blood sugar over the past ____________________________ days. 4. Which endocrine disorder is characterized by “moon face” and “buffalo hump”? ____________________________disease 5. SIADH is a syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone. Is this too much or not enough ADH? 6. What are some of the symptoms of thyroid storm? ____________________________ 7. Bulging of the eyes related to hyperthyroidism is called ____________________________. 8. A relative lack of insulin, or resistance to the action of insulin, results in diabetes mellitus type ____________________________. 9. What is the only insulin that can be given intravenously? ____________________________ 10. Diabetic ketoacidosis is caused by extreme ____________________________. 5.4 Gastrointestinal System 1. What is the name of the point where there is tenderness in a patient with an inflamed appendix? ____________________________ 2. Gastroesophageal reflux is exacerbated by: • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ • ____________________________ 3. Hirschsprung’s disease is a pediatric disease of ____________________________. 4. Most of our digestion/absorption of nutrients occurs in which organ? ____________________________ 5. In a patient who has had a gastrectomy, or gastric bypass, there is a risk for ____________________________, which is characterized by nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, and abdominal cramping. 6. ____________________________ is an accumulation of fluid in the abdomen related to portal hypertension and cirrhosis of the liver. 7. What is the primary concern in esophageal varices? ____________________________ and ____________________________ 8. Which type of hepatitis is common with blood transfusions, IV drug abusers, and HIV positive patients? ____________________________ (there is no vaccine)

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9. What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis? ____________________________ 10. When part of the bowel telescopes into another part, this is known as ____________________________. 11. Irritable bowel syndrome is usually ____________________________ disease or ____________________________colitis. 12. What is the best way to help prevent the spread of viral Hepatitis? ____________________________ 13. What medications are known to irritate the gastrointestinal system and increase risk of bleeding? ____________________________ and ____________________________ 14. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of the intrinsic factor, which helps the absorption of what vitamin? ____________________________ 15. What are some recommendations a nurse can give hernia patients to help reduce the effects of the disease? ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________ 16. Redness and pruritus of the palms of the hands can be indicative of what GI disturbance? ____________________________ 5.5 Respiratory Disorder 1. Where in the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occur? ____________________________ 2. Emphysema is a type of ____________________________ obstructive ____________________________ disease that is progressive. 3. People who have COPD depend on ____________________________ drive to stimulate respiration. 4. What oxygen adjunct would be used to deliver 15 liters per minute of oxygen? ____________________________ 5. The ventilator mode in which the ventilator does most of the work for the patient is the ____________________________ control mode. 6. Positive end expiratory pressure is known as ____________________________, and adds extra pressure on the exhalation phase of a patient’s respirations. 7. ____________________________support adds extra pressure in the inhalation phase of a patient’s respirations. 8. Which disease process is characterized by non-compliance of the lungs during ventilation, and may result in ventilator dependent respiratory failure and death? ____________________________ 9. Asthma is a reactive airway disease. Name three things that can precipitate an asthma attack. ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________ 10. A patient who has a bronchoscopy is at risk for ____________________________ when coming out of anesthesia, so airway is a priority for these patients. 11. The volume of air that a patient receives with each normal breath is called the ____________________________. 12. When there is air in the thoracic cavity that causes lung deflation, this is called a ____________________________. 13. Signs of a pneumothorax include dyspnea, ____________________________ deviation, tugging,

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cyanosis, tachypnea, and ____________________________ breath sound on the ____________________________ side. 14. A clot in the lung is called a ____________________________. 15. A V/Q scan will identify a ventilation/perfusion ____________________________. 5.6 Cardiovascular Disorder 1. The three components of the cardiovascular system are the blood vessels, the ____________________________, and the blood. 2. What are three non-modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease? ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________ 3. A stroke, or CVA, caused by a clot or blockage is called an ____________________________ CVA. 4. A stroke, or CVA, caused by an aneurysm and bleed is called a ____________________________ CVA. 5. A heart attack is called a myocardial ____________________________. 6. What enzyme is most important in diagnosing muscle damage in a heart attack? ____________________________ 7. What cardiac rhythm is characterized by regular QRS complexes, each proceeded by a p-wave? ____________________________ 8. Which cardiac rhythm is characterized by an irregularly irregular pattern? ____________________________ 9. Congestive heart failure is failure of the heart to pump. This can lead to fluid overload, pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic ____________________________. 10. When there is a circulatory problem, or vascular disease that makes it difficult for blood to reach the extremities, this is known as ____________________________ occlusive disease. 11. When a patient has peripheral vascular disease that involves the venous system, elevating the legs will make the patient’s symptoms ____________________________. 12. What type of anti-hypertensive drug is Bumex? ____________________________ 13. A calcium channel blocker will ____________________________ the heart rate and reduce the oxygen demand on the heart. 14. If a patient has chest pain which is relieved by Nitroglycerine, then this pain is likely caused by coronary ____________________________ disease. 15. Repair of a blockage in a coronary artery by advancing a catheter and inflating the balloon on the end of the catheter is known as ____________________________. 16. The disease characterized by vasospasm of the arterioles and arteries of the upper and lower extremities and display of cyanotic fingertips, toes, ears, and cheeks is called ____________________________. 17. What is the major adverse consequence of AAA repair that nurses and physicians look out for? ____________________________ failure 18. An inferior vena cava filter, or greenfield filter, is meant to catch ____________________________ that develop in the ____________________________.

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19. What are the end organs regarding hypertension and its consequences? Eyes, brain, ____________________________, and ____________________________ 20. Heparin is a(an) ____________________________. 21. Aspirin is a(an) ____________________________. 22. Plavix is a(an) ____________________________. 23. A patient in heart failure and/or who has atrial fibrillation may be given what drug to reduce heart rate and increase contractility? ____________________________ 24. Which direct acting vasodilator is never given for malignant hypertension? ____________________________ 25. What is the most common consequence of valvular dysfunction? ____________________________ 26. How many doses of nitroglycerin is a patient able to take at home before calling for help and intervention? ____________________________ 27. Where is the pacemaker in the heart? ____________________________ node 5.7 Renal Disorder 1. Oliguria means ____________________________. 2. Renal patients may undergo hemodialysis or ____________________________ dialysis. 3. In a patient who has an AV fistula for hemodialysis, the nurse should ____________________________ a bruit, and ____________________________ a thrill. 4. A urinary tract infection may include infection of the bladder, ureters, or ____________________________, or a combination of the three parts of the urinary tract. 5. Urosepsis is a common infection in the elderly population. The most common infectious agent is ____________________________. 6. One of the most common symptoms that an older client will present with is ____________________________. 7. Inflammation of the glomerular structure can be precipitated by a(n) ____________________________infection of the upper respiratory tract. 8. Polycystic kidney disease causes hypertrophy and dysfunction of the kidneys and bladder. This usually results in ____________________________within 3-4 months of life. 9. Kidney stones may be passed, or they may need to be destroyed with ____________________________. 10. True or false, a patient with chronic renal failure is prone to hypokalemia. ____________________________ 11. A normal GFR, glomerular filtration rate, is above ____________________________. 12. True or false, chronic renal failure can be reversed with compliance to dialysis. ____________________________ 13. A juvenile had a kidney removed due to a cyst. With one kidney remaining, he must be taught to avoid ____________________________ sports. 14. ____________________________ hormone is responsible for the reabsorption of water by the kidneys.

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15. Which diagnostic test measures the amount of nitrogenous urea, a byproduct of protein metabolism by the liver? Bun, creatinine, or GFR? ____________________________ 16. IVP dye can be nephrotoxic, so what nursing interventionmight be suggested for most patients receiving a pyelogram? ____________________________ 5.8 Eye or Ear Disorder 1. The eye chart used for distance eye testing is called the ____________________________ chart. 2. The white part of the eye is the ____________________________ and the clear covering is called the ____________________________. 3. The name of the chart used to test for color blindness is called the ____________________________ test. 4. Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva of the eye. It is always considered infectious, but may be caused by other things such as ____________________________, ____________________________, and ____________________________. 5. ____________________________ degeneration is age related to loss of central vision. 6. If retinal detachment is ____________________________ the patient will be blind. 7. Which type of glaucoma is a medical emergency, is painful, and can cause nausea and vomiting? ____________________________ closure glaucoma. 8. Cataract surgery involves replacement of the ____________________________ of the eye. 9. Nearsightedness is also known as ____________________________. 10. Far sightedness is also known as ____________________________. 11. The procedure done for a child who has toomuch fluid in his ears due to poor drainage is called a ____________________________. 12. ____________________________ is also called endolymphatic hydrops and is characterized by tinnitus, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and vertigo. 13. When sound waves are blocked to the inner ear fibers because of external or middle ear disorders, this is known as ____________________________ hearing loss. 14. A pathological process of the inner ear or of the sensory fibers that leads to the cerebral cortex, which is usually permanent, is known as ____________________________ hearing loss. 15. The tool used to exam the ear is the____________________________. 16. The normal tympanic membrane should be what color? ____________________________ 17. What are the names of the two tuning fork tests for hearing? ____________________________ and Rinne 18. Wax build up in the ear is called ____________________________. 19. Otitis needs to be treated with antibiotics. Untreated or insufficiently treated otitis can develop into ____________________________, which is swelling behind the ear and pain with minimal movement of the head.

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5.9 Neurological Disorders 1. The ____________________________ coma scale is used to determine the level of consciousness/responsiveness in a neuro patient. 2. A Glasgow score of eight or less represents ____________________________. 3. A positive Babinski reflex in an adult is ____________________________. 4. A spinal cord injury above C4 will result in ____________________________. 5. Autonomic dysreflexia is caused by _____________________________ or ____________________________in a quadriplegic patient. 6. If the spinal cord is completely severed, then the damage done is ____________________________. 7. The syndrome that is characterized by loss of pain, temperature and light touch on the opposite side of the injury, and loss of motor function, vibration, position, and deep touch on the same side of the injury is known as the ____________________________ syndrome. 8. The inability to recognize familiar people or objects is called ____________________________. 9. The earliest sign of increased intracranial pressure is ____________________________. 10. Lou Gehrig’s Disease is characterized by neuromuscular degeneration while the brain and its cognition remain intact. This is known as ____________________________ lateral sclerosis. 11. ____________________________is a disease of demyelination of neuron sheaths. It is characterized by fatigue, muscle weakness, muscle spasm, and periods of exacerbation and remission. 12. ____________________________ disease is a disease characterized by tremors. It is degenerative and progressive and is caused by decreased dopamine. Mental deterioration occurs as well. 13. Facial paralysis that is unilateral and can include a loss of taste, is usually self-limiting, and resolves in several months is called ____________________________. 14. ____________________________ syndrome is an infectious neuronitis of the cranial and peripheral nerves. Usually this is precipitated by a respiratory infection and involves paresthesia and lower extremity weakness with possible respiratory failure. It can take years for recovery. 15. Which osmotic diuretic medication is often given to reduce intracranial pressure? ____________________________ 5.10 Musculoskeletal System 1. Realignment or correction of a bone fracture or dislocation is called ____________________________. 2. A broken bone is also called a ____________________________ bone. 3. An open fracture is called a ____________________________ fracture. 4. Buck’s traction is a type of ____________________________ traction that includes a weight pulling traction on the injured extremity. 5. Traction that involves pins, wires, or tongs directly applied to the bone is called ____________________________ traction.

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6. When pressure increases within one or more compartments of an extremity, leading to decreased blood flow, tissue ischemia, and most importantly, neurovascular impairment, this is known as ____________________________ syndrome. 7. In a broken or injured bone, a fat globule can be released into the bloodstream and have catastrophic effects. This is known as a fat ____________________________. 8. Arthritis is inflammation of the joints. Which type of arthritis is degenerative? ____________________________ 9. Demineralization of the bone, which occurs primarily in the elderly female population is called ____________________________. 10. When a patient uses crutches, weight should be applied on which body part? ____________________________ 11. What is the name of the fluid that acts as a lubricant for the bones and cartilage in the knee? ____________________________ fluid 12. When one side of a bone is broken and the other is bent, this is called a ____________________________ fracture. 13. If a patient has an arm casted and has numbness in his fingers, should he elevate his arm to relieve the pressure? ____________________________ 14. A laminectomy is performed for cord compression related to disk ____________________________. 15. A systemic disease caused by excess uric acid is called ____________________________. 16. Allopurinol is prescribed for which disease process? ____________________________ 17. Humira is an injectable medication used for ____________________________ arthritis. 5.11 Immune System 1. What is the name of the skin cancer that is opportunistic and is often associated with HIV patients? ____________________________ 2. What type of immunity is present at birth? ____________________________ 3. True or false, anaphylaxis and allergic reaction are the same thing. ____________________________ 4. Would swelling and redness at the site after a bee sting be an anaphylactic reaction, allergic reaction, or both, since they mean the same thing? ____________________________ 5. What disease can be caused by tick bites and often results in a ring-shaped rash? ____________________________. 6. Immunosuppressed patients are at high risk for ____________________________. 7. An infection that targets immunosuppressed patients is called an ____________________________ infection. ‘

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5.12 Mental Health Disorder 1. What is a major mental health concern in older adults? ____________________________ 2. The eating disorder characterized by binging and purging is called ____________________________. 3. What level of anxiety is associated with the stressors of everyday life? ____________________________ 4. A person who has experienced war and suffers from flashbacks may be diagnosed with ____________________________. 5. A ____________________________ disorder is when a patient consistently worries about physical illness yet demonstrates no supportive physical evidence. The patient may use her “disorder” for secondary gains or to get out of undesirable obligations. 6. A person who has short term memory loss, cannot remember who he is or where he came from, and wanders, is diagnosed with having dissociative ____________________________. 7. Patients with bipolar disorder can have extremes of personality and behavior. When a bipolar patient is manic and is being aggressive, what is the first thing the nurse should try? ____________________________ 8. True or false, when a suicidal patient seems strangely and suddenly elated, this good and is a sign of improvement. ____________________________ 9. The patient reports that someone is telling him to do things, such as hurting or killing others. He is ____________________________, and ____________________________ is the priority. 10. Schizophrenics are often paranoid and think others are out to get them. They need to feel ____________________________ in the relationship. 11. True or false, dementia is progressive and not reversible. Delirium is a synonymous term. ____________________________ 12. What is the consequence of a patient taking Antibuse who drinks alcohol? ____________________________ 13. Delirium tremens is a result of ____________________________. 14. What is a temporary state of severe emotional disorganization, caused by failure of coping mechanisms? ____________________________ 15. Kubler-Ross identified the stages of ____________________________.

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